The LORD is righteous;Obviously, God is righteous. So how does that figure into the second line? Is it saying that because He is righteous, he will not allow the wicked person's bindings to hold? Is it a sign of vengeance against His people?
He has cut in two the cords of the wicked.
Or is it the other way around? Is it saying that He breaks the bindings, therefore showing that He is not wicked? If He's not wicked, that would mean He's righteous. But doesn't being righteous mean more than opposing the wicked? Doesn't it also mean doing what is good, not just going against the bad?
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