"Son of man, I have broken the arm of Pharaoh king of Egypt; and behold, it has not been bound up for healing or wrapped with a bandage, that it may be strong to hold the sword.This seems to be a continuation of the previous chapter's prophecy. However, here God uses the past tense. Does that mean that it has happened, and therefore the previous chapter's prophecy has in fact happened already?
I also wonder if this is literal or physical? Did the Pharaoh actually break his arm, and leave it untreated? Or was it a metaphor for the bad state of the country's defenses, and how easy they would be for Babylon to defeat?
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